I'm only new here and I don't know if this topic has been dealt with before or not, and I maybe in the wrong section of the forum for this question, but I'll post it here and see what happens.
How do Western Buddhists and Zen practitioners account for the appeal of Zen in the West over other forms of Buddhism? It is my impression, and I could of course be wrong, that Zen is by far the most popular form of Buddhism outside East Asia and that this is especially so in the West. Is it that Zen appeals more to the Western mind or is it that Zen was more popularised in the West than other forms of Buddhism going all the way back to the first 20 years of the post-war era, i.e. 1945 to 1965, when Zen was first introduced to a Western audience in the US and so was really the first form of Buddhism to be thoroughly grounded in the West and make any kind of an impact and take root?
How do Western Buddhists and Zen practitioners account for the appeal of Zen in the West over other forms of Buddhism? It is my impression, and I could of course be wrong, that Zen is by far the most popular form of Buddhism outside East Asia and that this is especially so in the West. Is it that Zen appeals more to the Western mind or is it that Zen was more popularised in the West than other forms of Buddhism going all the way back to the first 20 years of the post-war era, i.e. 1945 to 1965, when Zen was first introduced to a Western audience in the US and so was really the first form of Buddhism to be thoroughly grounded in the West and make any kind of an impact and take root?
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